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Brandon Berg's avatar

The decline in age-adjusted dementia prevalence is superficially at odds with the CDC's reporting of a secular increase in age-adjusted AD death rates.

How might these be reconciled?

1. Dramatic reduction in the incidence of non-AD dementia offsetting an increase in AD.

2. Changes in diagnosis of AD and/or coding of deaths.

3. A statistical artifact where age-adjustment doesn't completely offset the effect of fewer deaths from other causes.

I don't know where to find the data to test these hypotheses, though. Do you know what causes this apparent discrepancy?

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