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Brandon Berg's avatar

The decline in age-adjusted dementia prevalence is superficially at odds with the CDC's reporting of a secular increase in age-adjusted AD death rates.

How might these be reconciled?

1. Dramatic reduction in the incidence of non-AD dementia offsetting an increase in AD.

2. Changes in diagnosis of AD and/or coding of deaths.

3. A statistical artifact where age-adjustment doesn't completely offset the effect of fewer deaths from other causes.

I don't know where to find the data to test these hypotheses, though. Do you know what causes this apparent discrepancy?

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Andy McKenzie's avatar

Hello and thank you for the interesting comment! Perhaps this is what you are referring to: https://www.cdc.gov/mmwr/volumes/66/wr/mm6620a1.htm

My guess is that it is mostly (2) -- AD is being more recognized as a cause of death -- and (3) -- because we are getting better at treating other things such as cardiovascular disease, more deaths are from AD. Also could be (1) -- "AD" is being diagnosed more rather than the generic "dementia". If I recall correctly, this shift in diagnosis started in the 1980s and may have still been occurring in the 1990s.

I don't know where to find the data to test these hypotheses, though. This sounds like a pretty in-depth epidemiology project to me.

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Brandon Berg's avatar

Sorry, I forgot the link. The one I was thinking of was slightly different (age-standardized, rather than bucketed), but same basic idea:

https://www.cdc.gov/mmwr/volumes/70/wr/mm7016a5.htm

We see a near doubling between 1999 and 2019. I wonder if anybody has worked out a model of how age standardization might not fully correct for the effects of people surviving other diseases. I'll see if I can find something.

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Andy McKenzie's avatar

Thanks, yeah that would make sense to me as a possible explanation. I'd be curious to hear!

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